IPBS PO Perlimery Exam Question paper with answer keys

IBPS PO Prelims 2017

Model Question Paper

based on Predicted Pattern

English Language

Q1-8) Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given

below the passage.

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council failed to reach a consensus on critical

issues, including the laws that need to be passed in the winter session in order to

stick to the April 1, 2017 rollout date set by the Centre. With the pending legislations,

including the draft model GST law, as well as the contentious issue of dual

administrative control over assesses between the Centre and the States remaining

unresolved, the GST Council would now meet on December 11 and 12. While the

effect of demonetization on the economy and on the states is outside the purview of

the GST Council, Mr. Jaitley said that, on the behest of the state representatives, he

wrapped up the Council meeting early and allowed the states to voice their

grievances on demonetization. Some of the states, the minister said, suggested an

increase in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management targets while others

called for a relaxation of the ways and means limits. “Our target is still April 1, and

our options are anyway limited,” Mr. Jaitley said. “The earliest we can bring it in is

April 1 and the latest is September 16, which is five months and 15 days later.” “I am

happy that all the states raised their voices on demonetization,”

West Bengal Finance Minister Amit Mitra told reporters following the meeting.

“Because revenue will be affected, all states are deeply concerned about

compensation since earlier compensation was based on the single issue of GST. Now

there is the dual issue of GST and demonetisation.” Earlier in the day, Kerala Finance

Minister Thomas Isaac said that demonetization would result in a fall in production

worth Rs. 2.5 lakh crore, adding that the cash crunch would also impact state

revenue. “Tax collection can be 50 per cent lower this month as there is no business

in Delhi markets,” Manish Sisodia, Deputy Chief Minister of Delhi tweeted on

Saturday. “If so, it would be hard to pay salaries of govt employees… same concern is

being expressed by many state FMs in the GST council in the presence of Finance

Minister.” “One would hope that there would be headway in the next Council

meeting. It looks increasingly difficult to get the GST laws passed in the winter

session of the Parliament.

And if that doesn’t happen, then April 1 looks unlikely,” said Pratik Jain, partner and

leader (indirect tax) at PwC India, stressing that this is a disappointing outcome for

industry. “We went over the central GST and state GST draft legislation clause by

clause,” the finance minister said. “Nine chapters in each of the legislations were

discussed. We are moving towards a consensus on the laws. We will discuss them

further on December 11 and 12.”

Q1.What is the main idea of the given passage?

1. NSC Council fails to reach consensus on key issues.

2. The effect of demonetization on the economy.

3. GST Council fails to reach consensus on key issues as a consequence of the

demonetization move.

4. Roll out date set by the Center.

5. The laws that need to be passed in the winter session.

Q2. What according to the passage is outside the purview of the GST Council?

1. The revenue generated from the economy and the states.

2. The positive effects of demonetization on the economy.

3. The betterment of the citizens.

4. The cancellation of parliamentary sessions.

5. The effect of demonetization one economy and the states.

Q3. With what agenda would the GST Council meet on December 11 and 12?

1. To get the bill ultimately passed with the majority consensus.

2. To resolve the cash crunch.

3. To discuss on the issue of production of goods in the economy.

4. With the draft model of the GST law, and the issue of dual administrative

control between the Centre and the States.

5. With the draft model law of the party in power.

Q4. In the context of the passage, what can be inferred about the view of Finance

Ministers of the States in relation to the demonetization move?

1. They have welcomed it with enthusiasm.

2. They are indifferent about it.

3. They want to see a long term effect of the move before they react to the move.

4. They are unhappy with it.

5. Cannot be inferred from the given passage.

Q5. In which of the following are you likely to find the above passage?

1. Newspaper report.

2. An academic thesis.

3. A piece of fiction.

4. A book on political science.

5. None of the above.

Q6. What were the grievances voiced by the states on demonetization?

1. An increase in the Fiscal Responsibility.

2. A relaxation of the ways and means limits.

3. The cash crunch needed to be highlighted.

4. A suggestion of increase in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management

targets as well as relaxation of the ways and means limits.

5. The people should be given extra money

Q7. How according to the Kerala Finance Minister would demonetisation impact

State revenue?

1. It would not impact state revenue for atleast a month.

2. It would never impact state revenue.

3. Demonetization would result in a production loss of Rs. 2.5 lakh crore,

affecting state revenue.

4. Demonetization would result in a production loss of Rs.5 lakh crore.

5. the cash crunch would have a mild impact on the state revenue.

Q8. What concern is being expressed by the Finance Ministers of many States in the

GST council?

1. It would be easy to pay salaries of govt employees.

2. It would be hard to pay salaries of govt employees.

3. Tax collection can be 25 per cent lower this month.

4. Tax collection can be 75 per cent lower this month.

5. Tax collection can be 50 per cent lower making it hard to pay salaries of the

government employees.

Q9-15) Below, a passage is given with five blanks labelled (A)-(E). Below the

passage, five options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank

most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding

answer.

In 2014, the West Africa region was __ (A) __ with the worst Ebola Virus Disease

(EVD) outbreak ever observed in Africa, causing tragic loss of life, impacting country

economies and adversely impacting agriculture as well as food and nutrition security

in the region. Governments, institutions and infrastructures __ (B) __ to cope with

the enormous challenges brought by the epidemic while the way of life of affected

populations hung in the balance. While the EVD outbreak is being __ (C) __ over

time, it is important to document lessons learned from this epidemic, given that such

epidemics will very likely increase in frequency and gravity in the future.

The impact of a major disease outbreak on food security and nutrition through __

(D) __ agricultural activities in countries already affected by __ (E) __ food

insecurity and malnutrition is also rarely quantified or underestimated and

represents a double burden for populations facing both critical health conditions and

unsteady access to nutritious and diversified sources of food. Countries and the

international community alike therefore need to be better prepared for future

outbreaks, which require understanding the driving forces that lead to public health

__ (F) __ and carefully examining their impact through a multi - sectoral lens. This

calls for a renewed __ (G) __ and holistic approach to risk management beyond the

health sector, which embraces the complexity of such events and recognizes their

impact on all segments of affected societies and economies.

Q9.Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (A)?

a. Evaded

b. Avoided

c. Dodged

d. Annoyed

e. Confronted

Q10. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (B)?

a. Easily

b. Lazily

c. Struggled

d. Contested

e. Scrambled

Q11. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (C)?

a. Contained

b. Free

c. Rampaging

d. Embraced

e. Understood

Q12. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (D)?

a. Increased

b. Reduced

c. Maximized

d. Magnified

e. Microscopic

Q13. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (E)?

a. Incurable

b. Curable

c. Curated

d. Chronic

e. Crafted

Q14. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (F)?

a. Emergencies

b. Juncture

c. Success

d. Urgency

e. Quandry

Q15. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (G)?

a. Accomodated

b. Holistic

c. Integrated

d. Dispersed

e. Divulged

Q16-24) Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it.

The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that

part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of

punctuation, if any.

Q16. He searched (1)/ high and low (2)/ for his scissors (3)/ but it seemed to have

vanished (4)/ No error (5)

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q17. Neither (1)/ of the girls are (2)/ qualified (3)/ for the position.(4)/ No error(5)

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q18. She aims to doing well (1)/ in her medical exam so that she can (2)/ come back

and provide better(3)/ medical facilities to the villagers after some years.(4)/ No

error. (5)

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q19. The country ranks (1)/ first in the (2)/ production of milk (3)/ from the cattles

(4)/ No error (5)

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q20. The boy (1)/ together with all his friends (2)/ shop regularly (3)/ at the

mall.(4)/ No error(5)

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q21. Lisa would soon turn (1)/ into one of the nasty people (2)/ which are driven

solely (3)/ by the power of money. (4)/ No error (5)

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q22. All the seven (1)/ members in the team (2)/ for camp organisation (3)/ loved

each other and worked with cooperation (4)/ No error. (5)

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q23. The whole team was surprised (1)/ that in spite of (2)/ being a fresher, Rita

(3)/conducted the meeting in aplomb. (4)/ No error. (5)

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q24. Rita is wearing (1)/ a comparatively finer(2)/ outfit for (3)/ the interview.(4)/

No error. (5)

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q25. Some parts of the sentence have errors and some are correct. Find

out which part has an error and mark that part as your answer. If there

are no errors, mark No error as your answer.

Being a rainy day (1)/ the child (2)/ could not (3)/ go out. (4)/ No error(5)

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

Q26-30)Rearrange the following six sentences/ group of sentences (A),

(B), (C), (D), (E), and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful

paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

A: If food is wasted, there is so much wastage of water used in agriculture, manpower

and electricity lost in food processing industries.

B: In fact, according to agriculture ministry, Rs. 50,000 crore worth of food

produced is wasted every year in the country.

C: Some measures that the government needs to take include containing wastage in

transportation, improve storage facilities, food processing also needs to be sped up so

food is saved.

D: Indians waste as much food as the whole of United Kingdom consumes – a

statistic that may not so much indicate our love of surfeit, as it is of our population.

E: If the same food which is wasted can be processed, it would mean it would either

be available in raw form or in bottled form at an affordable price.

F: According to the United Nations Development Programme, up to 40% of the food

produced in India is wasted.

Q26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1. B

2. C

3. F

4. E

5. A

Q27. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1. B

2. C

3. D

4. E

5. A

Q28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1. B

2. A

3. D

4. E

5. C

Q29. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1. A

2. C

3. F

4. E

5. B

Q30. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

1. B

2. C

3. A

4. E

5. F

Reasoning Ability

Q31-35) Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the

given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘mu si pa la za‘ means ‘pacific is the largest ocean’;

‘fu pa ru ka za’ means ‘largest animal live in ocean’;

‘lo fu mu si pa le’ means ‘elephant is the largest land animal’;

‘ga zo le’ means ‘elephant are herbivorous’.

Q31. Code ‘fu’ is for which word in the given language?

1. elephant

2. animal

3. largest

4. ocean

5. None of the above

Q32. Code ‘pa’ is for which word in the given language?

1. elephant

2. animal

3. largest

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of the above

Q33. Which one of the following means ‘live’?

1. fu

2. ru

3. ka

4. Either za or ru

5. Either ru or ka

Q34. Which one of the following could be code for ‘pacific ocean is beautiful’?

1. mu si la tp

2. tp mu la za

3. si la za zo

4. Either 2 or 3

5. None of these

Q35. Code ‘ru’ is for which word in the given language?

1. live

2. the

3. in

4. Either ‘live’ or ‘in’

5. Cannot be determined

Q36-38) Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the

given questions.

Seven family members P, U, Q, T, C, G and R are related to each other such that,

there are two couples, each having a child.

The information given regarding them is,

a) C and G are first cousins.

b) P is married to R and likes the movie “Transformer”.

c) G is R’s niece and both like to watch “Battlestar Galactica”.

d) Q likes to watch “Star Wars” like her husband.

e) U is a grandmother to G and mother of Q, while T is her son in law. U likes classics

“Gone with the wind”.

f) C likes same movie as his father R.

g) U has 2 children, a girl and a boy.

Q36.Which movie does C likes to watch?

1. Star Wars

2. Battlestar Galactica

3. Transformers

4. Gone with the wind

5. Cannot be determined

Q37.Who are children of U?

1. P and T

2. R and P

3. Q and T

4. Q and R

5. Cannot be determined

Q38. How is P related to U?

1. Son

2. Son in law

3. Daughter

4. Daughter in law

5. Cannot be determined

Q39. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be

true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are definitely

true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

A > B ≥ C ≥ D; M > E; D > E = F ≥ G; H = G ≥ I

Conclusions:

I. F ≥ I

II. M > G

III. C ≥ F

1. None is true

2. Only I and II are true

3. Only II and III are true

4. Only I and III are true

5. All are true

Q40. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be

true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are definitely

true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

Q = P ≥ R; T < U; A = T; A > E; T ≥ S > R

Conclusions:

I. R ≤ U

II. S = E

III. R ≤ A

1. None is true

2. Only I and II are true

3. Only II and III are true

4. Only I and III are true

5. All are true

Q41. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be

true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are definitely

true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

M ≤ N ≤ O < P ≥ Q; R = S; P < R; U ≤ M; T < M

Conclusions:

I. M < P

II. S > Q

III. T < O

1. None is true

2. Only I and II are true

3. Only II and III are true

4. Only I and III are true

5. All are true

Q42-43) Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the

questions which follow.

1) Sarah weights more than Barton and Alan.

2) Remus weights less than only Kyle.

3) Peter weights as much as Sarah but less than Dana.

4) Alan does not weigh the minimum.

Q42. Who amongst the following is the third heaviest?

1. Kyle

2. Remus

3. Barton

4. Dana

5. Cannot be determined

Q43.Which of the following is true?

1. Only four people are heavier than Remus.

2. Barton weights more than Peter.

3. No one weights less than Barton.

4. Only two people are heavier than Kyle.

5. All are true.

Q44. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be

true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are definitely

true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

U ≤ V; W < V; W > X; X = Y; Y ≥ Z; S ≥ V; A < U; W ≥ B

Conclusions:

I. A ≤ S

II. Y > B

III. Z < V

1. None is true

2. Only I and II are true

3. Only II and III are true

4. Only I and III are true

5. Only III is true

Q45. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be

true, find which of the conclusion among given three conclusions is /are definitely

true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

A = O; A > X; A < R; T > R; X ≥ Y; O ≥ P

Conclusions:

I. R > X

II. P ≤ T

III. Y < O

1. None is true

2. Only I and II are true

3. Only II and III are true

4. Only I and III are true

5. All are true

Q46. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four

conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be

true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the

conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the

given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All baskets are buckets.

Some buckets are mugs.

No mug is a bowl.

All bowls are cups.

Conclusions:

I. Some baskets are mugs

II. Some buckets are not bowls

III. No baskets are cups.

IV. Some baskets are bowls.

1. None follows

2. Either I or III follows

3. Only II follow

4. Only II & III follow

5. Either II or IV follow

Q47. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four

conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be

true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the

conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the

given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some boxes are brown.

Some browns are books.

All papers are books.

No brown are magazines.

Conclusions:

I. No paper is a magazine.

II. Some books are not magazines.

III. Some boxes are books.

IV. All magazines being boxes is a possibility.

1. Only I follows.

2. Either I or III follows

3. Only I & II follow

4. Only II & IV follow

5. None of them follow.

Q48. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by three

conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true

even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the

conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the

given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some statues are rocks.

No rock is a wood.

Some woods are figures.

All figures are made of glass.

Conclusions:

I. Some woods are glass.

II. Some statues are glass.

III. Some rocks are not figures.

1. None follows

2. Either I or III follows

3. Only I follow

4. Only I & III follow

5. Only III follows.

Q49. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four

conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be

true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the

conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the

given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some machines are robots.

All robots are smart.

Some smarts are sentient.

Some programs are smart.

Conclusions:

I. Some machines are smart.

II. Some machines are not smart.

III. Some programs are sentient.

IV. No machine is a program.

1. None follows

2. Either I or III follows

3. Either I & II follow

4. Only I & II follow

5. Only I follows

Q50. Directions: In the question below are given four statements followed by four

conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be

true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the

conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the

given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some fuels are diesel.

All Diesels are fluid.

All oils are fuels.

No fuel is program.

Conclusions:

I. Some Diesel are programs.

II. All diesels are oils.

III. Some diesels are oils.

IV. Some fluids are program.

1. None follows

2. Either II or III follows

3. Either I & II follow

4. Only III follow

5. Only IV follows

Q51-55) Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given

questions.

Seven people namely D, E, F, G, H, J and K have an anniversary but not necessarily

in the same order, in seven different months of the same year namely February,

March, April, June, September, October and November. Each of them also likes a

different colour namely Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, White, Orange and Purple but not

necessarily in the same order.

J has an anniversary in the month which has more than 30 days. Only one person

has an anniversary between J and the one who likes Blue. Both K and F have an

anniversary in one of the months after the one who likes Blue. K has an anniversary

immediately before F. The one who likes Green has an anniversary in the month

which has less than 30 days. Only three people have an anniversary between the one

who likes Green and the one who likes Purple. Only two people have an anniversary

between K and the one who likes Yellow. G has an anniversary immediately after the

one who likes Yellow. Only two people have an anniversary between G and H. D has

an anniversary immediately before the one who likes Red. F does not like Orange.

Q51.Which of the following represents the month in which K has an anniversary?

1. October

2. March

3. April

4. September

5. Cannot be determined

Q52.Which of the following does F like?

1. Blue

2. Red

3. Yellow

4. White

5. Purple

Q53. As per the given arrangement, Green is related to April and Yellow is related to

September following a certain pattern, which of the following is Purple related to

following the same pattern?

1. February

2. June

3. October

4. November

5. March

Q54.Which of the following represents the people who have an anniversary in April

and November respectively?

1. E, D

2. H, D

3. H, F

4. E, F

5. E, K

Q55. How many people have an anniversary between the months in which H and D

have an anniversary?

1. None

2. One

3. Three

4. Two

5. More than three

Q56-60) Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given

questions.

Eight family members namely L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular

table but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are females and some of

them are males. All of them are related to each other in same way or the other. Some

of them are facing the center while some of them are facing outside (i.e. Opposite to

the center).

P sits second to the right of the M. M faces the center. Only two people sit between P

and N. N is the daughter of L. No female is an immediate neighbour of N. N’s brother

sits to her immediate right. Neither M nor Q is the brother of N. L’s wife sits to the

immediate right of P. L sits second to the left of his wife. S is not an immediate

neighbour of M. S is the wife of Q. Q sits third to the right of S. O is neither an

immediate neighbour of S nor P. Only three people sit between L and his brother.

Both the immediate neighbours of N face opposite directions (i.e if one neighbour

faces the center then the other neighbour faces outside and Vice-Versa). N’s husband

sits to the immediate right of R. P and Q face a direction opposite to that of L (i.e if L

faces the center then P and Q face outside and Vice-Versa)

Q56. How many people sit between M and R’s son when counted from the left of M?

1. Five

2. Three

3. Four

4. Two

5. One

Q57. If it is given that M is the father of R, then what is the position of M with

respect to M’s son in law?

1. Immediate Right

2. Second to the left

3. Third to the Right

4. Third to the left

5. Second to the Right

Q58.Which of the following statements regarding R is definitely correct?

1. R is the sister of P

2. R sits second to the right of Q

3. M and L are immediate neighbours of R

4. None of the given options is correct

5. All are true

Q59.Who amongst the following sits exactly between N and L when counted from

the left of L?

1. O

2. P

3. Q

4. R

5. S

Q60.Who amongst the following sits third to the right of P?

1. Q

2. P’s father-in-law

3. P’s Nephew

4. P’s wife

5. P’s father

Q61-65) Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given

questions.

Eight persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing four persons each in such a

way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In Row – 1, P, Q, R and

S are seated and all of them are facing south. In Row – 2, A, B, C, and D are seated

and all of them are facing north. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each

person seated in a row faces another person of the other row. Each of them belongs

to different places viz., Haryana, Bengaluru, Kolkata, Delhi, Jaipur, Mumbai, Pune

and Patna, but not necessarily in the same order.

One who is immediate neighbour of B faces person from Bengaluru. The person who

is immediate neighbour of D is from Pune. A person facing the person from

Bengaluru is second to the right of the person from Delhi. The immediate neighbour

of person from Haryana faces the person from Kolkata. The person from Haryana is

second to the right of the person who faces C. Only one person sits between person

from Kolkata and B. One who faces B is second to the left of P. There is only one

person between the person from Bengaluru and S. R faces the person from Patna. R

is neither from Bengaluru nor Jaipur. D is not an immediate neighbour of B.

Q61. Which of the following pairs of persons is seated at the extreme ends in any of

the two rows?

1. SQ

2. PR

3. AC

4. BD

5. RS

Q62.Which of the following statements is not true regarding R?

1. R is at the extreme right end of the row.

2. R faces the person from Patna.

3. R is second to the left of P.

4. There are two persons between R and S.

5. R is an immediate neighbour of Q.

Q63. Four of the five are alike in a certain way based on the above seating

arrangement and hence they form the group. Which one of the following does not

belong to that group?

1. R

2. S

3. C

4. A

5. B

Q64.Which of the following combinations of a person and place is not true?

1. P – Jaipur

2. R – Haryana

3. D – Kolkata

4. B – Patna

5. C – Pune

Q65.Who amongst the following belongs to Delhi?

1. S

2. Q

3. R

4. A

5. B

Quantitative Aptitude

Q66. What should come in place of question mark in the following question?

(4 × 4)3 ÷ (4)5 × (2 × 8)2 = (16)?

1. 5

2. 6

3. 3

4. 8

5. None of these

Q67. What should come in place of question mark in the following question?

√529 ÷ 46 × 6.4 + (8)3 – 252= ?

1. 265.1

2. 246.1

3. 256.4

4. 285.4

5. None of these

Q68.What should come in place of question mark in the following question?

14% of 250 + ? % of 300 = 125

1. 22

2. 24

3. 36

4. 30

5. None of these

Q69. Find the approximate value of the expression:

150.08% of 1168.03 ÷ 7.96 + 18.956 = 29.231 ×?

1. 10

2. 9

3. 8

4. 6

5. 11

Q70. Find the approximate value of the expression:

179.86 × 18.01 - ?2 = 2984

1. 16

2. 12

3. 14

4. 18

5. 19

Q71-72) Directions: Study the following table to answer these questions.

Number of Officers in Various Departments of an Organization called MNMO in Different

Scales

Dept.

Personnel Operations Systems Accounts Maintenance

Public

Scale Relations

I 220 625 650 350 320 180

II 125 425 575 290 260 155

III 85 280 225 150 100 120

IV 45 125 155 65 35 55

V 30 50 75 40 25 45

VI 8 15 30 20 10 8

Q71. What percentage of Scale IV officers are deployed in ‘operations’ department?

1. 25.5

2. 26.04

3. 26.69

4. 25

5. 26.40

Q72. Out of the total number of employees in ‘Personnel’ department, approximately

what per cent of employees are in Scale II?

1. 20.52

2. 25.17

3. 22.29

4. 20

5. 24.36

Q73. In public Relations department, the number of employees in Scale II is less

than that in Scale I by what per cent? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)

1. 14.67

2. 13.65

3. 13.89

4. 14.27

5. 14.03

Q74. Total number of employees in Scale VI is what per cent of the total number of

employees in Scale I?

1. 2.5

2. 3.25

3. 3.6

4. 3.88

5. 4.12

Q75.What is the ratio between the total number of employees in Scale III and Scale

IV respectively?

1. 2 : 1

2. 9 : 1

3. 1 : 2

4. 2 : 3

5. None of these

Q76. In a partnership, profit earned by Matt is Rs. 300 less than that earned by

Allan. Allan invested three fourth of the money that Matt invested and for twice the

time as Matt. How much profit Allan and Matt earned in total?

1. Rs. 600

2. Rs. 1200

3. Rs. 1500

4. Rs. 1800

5. Rs. 900

Q77. Nancy’s brother is 5 years elder to her. The sum of their ages is three fourth of

their father’s age. After 4 years, father’s age will be twice the age of Nancy’s brother.

What will be the age of Nancy 7 years from now?

1. 14 years

2. 16 years

3. 18 years

4. 21 years

5. 24 years

Q78. A 140 metre long train crosses another 210 metre long train running in the

opposite direction in 7 seconds. If the speed of the first train is 70 km/hr, what is the

speed of the second train in km/h?

1. 100

2. 110

3. 140

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these

Q79. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number

series?

24 50 98 198 394 (?)

1. 800

2. 788

3. 790

4. 810

5. None of these

Q80.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number

series?

100 49 47 67.5 131 (?)

1. 300

2. 322.5

3. 350

4. 327.5

5. None of these

Q81.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number

series?

33 43 65 99 145 (?)

1. 201

2. 203

3. 205

4. 211

5. None of these

Q82. In the following number series, only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong

number.

19 68 102 129 145 154

1. 154

2. 129

3. 145

4. 102

5. None of these

Q83.Which one of the following numbers in the series is wrong?

6, 26, 81, 166, 172

1. 81

2. 26

3. 6

4. 166

5. 172

Q84. In what ratio should water be mixed with soda costing Rs. 13 per litre so as to

make a profit of 20% by selling the diluted liquid at Rs. 14.40 per litre?

1. 10 : 1

2. 11 : 1

3. 1 : 11

4. 12 : 1

5. 1 : 12

Q85. Shankar bought two boxes for Rs. 1035, sold first box at a profit of 25% and the

second box at a loss of 18%. What will be the cost prices of the two boxes respectively,

if their selling price are the same?

1. Rs. 625, Rs. 410

2. Rs. 710, Rs. 325

3. Rs. 410, Rs. 625

4. Rs. 755, Rs. 280

5. Rs. 325, Rs. 710

Q86. The average age of family of 4 members 5 years ago was 16 years. With the

birth of a baby, the average of family is 1 more than what it was 5 years ago. Find the

age of the baby.

1. 1 year

2. 2 years

3. 3 years

4. 4 years

5. 5 years

Q87. In the following question, two equations are given. You have to solve these

equations and find out the values of x and y and determine the relation between

them.

I. 16x2 + 20x + 6 = 0

II. 10y2 + 38y + 24 = 0

1. x < y

2. x > y

3. x ≥ y

4. x ≤ y

5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established

Q88. In the following question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You

have to solve both the equations and determine the relation between x and y.

I. x2 + 11x + 30 = 0

II. y2 + 7y + 12 = 0

1. x > y

2. x ≥ y

3. x < y

4. x ≤ y

5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established.

Q89. In the following question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You

have to solve both the equations and determine the relation between x and y.

I. x2 – 16 = 0

II. y2 – 9y + 20 = 0

1. x > y

2. x ≥ y

3. x < y

4. x ≤ y

5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established.

Q90. In the following question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You

have to solve both the equations and determine the relation between x and y.

I. x – √121 = 0

II. y2 – 121 = 0

1. x > y

2. x ≥ y

3. x < y

4. x ≤ y

5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established.

Q91. In the following question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have

to solve both the equations and determine the relation between x and y.

I. x2- x -12 = 0

II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0

1. x > y

2. x ≥ y

3. x < y

4. x ≤ y

5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established.

Q91-96) Directions: Study the following Graph carefully and answer the

question given below:

Total Number of Arts, Science and Commerce Students in Various

Colleges

Q92. What is the average numbers of students (in thousands) taking up Commerce

from all the six colleges together? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)

1. 44.90

2. 43.33

3. 51.33

4. 38.09

5. 30.83

Q93.What is the respective ratio of the number of the students taken Commerce to

the number of students taking Science in college E?

1. 14 : 19

2. 12 : 17

3. 17 : 19

4. 15 : 11

5. 13 : 18

Q94. How many candidates (in thousands) have taken Arts from all the colleges?

1. 265

2. 237.5

3. 185

4. 260.5

5. 232

Q95. In college B, the students taking Science is what percent of the total number of

students taking Arts, Science and Commerce in college B?

1. 45

2. 55

3. 25

4. 70

5. 37.5

Q96. The number of students taking Commerce in college B, is how many thousand

fewer than the number of student taking Commerce in college A and college C

together?

1. 12.5

2. 27.5

3. 50

4. 10

5. 32.5

Q97. Aditya can do 50% more work than Radhika can do in the same time. Radhika

alone do a piece of work in 30 hours. Aditya with the help of Radhika, can finish

twice the same work in how many hours?

1. 24

2. 20

3. 22.5

4. 20.5

5. None of these

Q98. A rectangular sheet of length 44 cm and breadth 10 cm is taken. It is folded

along its length in a circle to form a right circular cylinder. What will be the volume

of the cylinder hence formed (in cubic cm)? (Take π = 22/7)

1. 1540

2. 1400

3. 1280

4. 1640

5. 1720

Q99. In how many ways the letters of word TESTBOOK can be arranged so that

there are vowels at first and last positions?

1. 360

2. 540

3. 720

4. 1080

5. 1440

Q100. There is 60% increase in an amount in 4 years at simple interest. What will

be the compound interest of Rs. 48,000 after 2 years at the same rate?

1. 10080

2. 15480

3. 14850

4. 33120

5. None of these

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